Kevin De Bruyne has reportedly made a decision on his next club after a glittering spell at Manchester City.

The Belgian is set to begin talks with Napoli next week about joining the newly crowned Serie A champions as a free agent, choosing to stay in Europe over a move to MLS side Chicago Fire FC, according to ESPN sources.

The 33-year-old midfielder will play his final game for Manchester City against Fulham at Craven Cottage on Sunday, as the club decided not to extend his contract, which ends in June. Despite his key role in securing six Premier League titles and a 2023 Champions League trophy since joining from VfL Wolfsburg for £55 million in 2015, De Bruyne was informed last month that no new deal would be offered.

Although De Bruyne expressed a desire to stay with City, interest came from clubs in the Premier League, Germany, and MLS, with Chicago Fire among the suitors.

No deal is finalized yet, and formal talks with Napoli will start after City’s season ends. However, sources indicate De Bruyne is likely to join his Belgium teammate Romelu Lukaku at the Diego Maradona Stadium, driven by football and family considerations. Negotiations are expected to progress smoothly.